7 Sep
2007
7 Sep
'07
3:20 p.m.
On 06.09-09:18, Thomas Barregren wrote: [ ... ]
Violating the very same license we require other to conform to definitely diminishes our own cause. But I cannot see how that can be used to justify, morally or legally, further violation. That would be to say: "Since you stole that bike, it is okay for me to steel it from you." Don't you agree?
you are of course, precisely correct but where this becomes a problem is that you _can_ run into discrimination laws, whereby, something is wholesale violated and suddenly it's an with only one party. i don't think this is a real consideration here.