[consulting] Unsigned Contract Breach Question

[Jeff Greenberg]

Until both parties have signed the contract, you have only a verbal commitment, which may or may not stand as a contract, and is limited to what was committed verbally and not what is in the written contract. This is all my opinion, of course, based on past experience. I'm not a lawyer, thank goodness.

On Mar 14, 2013, at 9:48 AM, Sam Cohen <sam at samcohen.com> wrote:

> On Thu, Mar 14, 2013 at 9:42 AM, Jeff Greenberg <listmail.ayendesigns at gmail.com> wrote:
>> In my experience a verbal commitment can only stand as a contract if you have specifically clarified that the person making the verbal commitment is in a position to authorize work to begin without any further approval.
> 
> Well, this is more than a verbal commitment.  This was a written contract, supplied by the client, including my scope of work, that was given to me to sign.  The only issue was they didn't return a signed copy to me because it was working it's way through their bureaucracy. 
> 
>  It seems like in this case, they should sign first, or we should require they sign first.  But the way it works here is they ask up to sign, to commit, and then it works it way through legal.  Seems like it puts us at a serious disadvantage, where we have to be fully committed, but the client has no obligation.
> 
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